Article III Section 1 of the Wisconsin Constitution currently reads, “Every United States citizen age 18 or older who is a resident of an election district in this state is a qualified elector of that district.”
After Tuesday’s vote, the article will now read, “Only a United States citizen age 18 or older who is a resident of an election district in this state is a qualified elector of that district.”
Doesn’t this change the meaning of the statement so much that it’s no longer true that every citizen of age who is a resident is eligible to vote? Can this new language be interpreted by courts and lawmakers such that anyone can be disenfranchised if such malicious laws can be passed in the state?
I see what you’re saying but it is hard to worry about a hypothetical misinterpretation. If you see this happening then you’ll have to vote but until then there’s nothing there.
It’s easy to worry about it, when the change wasn’t even necessary and has no effect if we’re to believe it was written in good faith.
Closing loopholes is worthwhile, even if they’re not being abused yet. You say “if you see this happening, then you’ll have to vote”, but that thing that may happen is people being denied the right to vote. So if this starts to happen, it may be impossible to undo with voting.
Case in point, this amendment pretended to close a loophole which didn’t even exist. Wisconsin law already prohibited non citizens from voting. It does not pass the smell test, being as haphazardly written as it is now.